What is the functional difference between the President having immunity for “official acts” and the powers granted to the German President under Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution?
What is the functional difference between the President having immunity for “official acts” and the powers granted to the German President under Article 48 of the Weimar Constitution?
For reference: Article 48 Wikipedia I’m trying to understand how anyone with any knowledge of the history of dictators could possibly justify granting a president unchecked “official” power so if anyone has any actual theories I am ALL ears.
As a German, well, I don't understand enough about the US side of things to answer to this, but I do always get spooked when I see nations pulling shit like that.
And, by the way, I do hope the USA finally get 9/11 under wraps this year: https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/presidential-actions/2023/09/07/notice-on-the-continuation-of-the-national-emergency-with-respect-to-certain-terrorist-attacks-3/
Wait, 9/11 is still considered an ongoing national emergency? Lmfao
Random guess, it grants some sort of overreaching privilege to some agencies and they are clinging onto that overreaching power?
Anyone got a real answer?